Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
09.06.2025 14:35
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
There's no rule.
What's (not “whats”) the rule?
Who is the beast of Revelation 13?
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.
You'll usually find your answer there.
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.
What makes you feel guilty the most?
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.